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AAPC CPC Sample Questions Answers - New CPC Exam Sample

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Procurement: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in establishing quality requirements for procurement, aligning trade partner requirements, and managing resources for inspections. It also focuses on the skills of Construction Procurement Managers in incorporating material control, resource identification, and mobilization strategies into the resource management process to ensure quality procurement.

Topic 2

Planning Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in strategic quality planning, encompassing project quality strategy development, integration of sustainable practices, alignment of the quality plan with other project plans, and adherence to industry standards and quality management systems. Also measures the skills of Construction Planners in understanding how to ensure the team is appropriately trained for quality, how to use third-party services and measurement systems, how to assess quality tools, and how to design a plan to audit quality effectively.

Topic 3

Pre-contract Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Project Managers in understanding project delivery, contract, and payment models, including identifying client types, contract types, payment models, and necessary documentation. It also measures the skills of Construction Estimators in understanding the project scope, schedule, and necessary resources.

Topic 4

Construction Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in implementing quality controls, managing nonconformances, implementing changes, monitoring and measuring quality, managing documentation, and facilitating continuous improvement. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Site Managers in ensuring effective monitoring and management of the construction site, promoting safety, and maintaining quality standards throughout the construction process.

Topic 5

Design Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Project Managers in ensuring design quality by examining quality objectives, coordinating functional and non-functional requirements, applying lessons learned, engaging stakeholders, applying QMS in design feedback, participating in constructability reviews, and implementing quality controls in design. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Designers in demonstrating quality during the monitoring of the design and in the documentation process.

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New CPC Exam Sample & CPC Interactive EBook

The Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam certification exam is one of the top-rated career advancement certification exams. The AAPC CPC certification exam can play a significant role in career success. With the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam (CPC) certification, you can gain several benefits such as validation of skills, career advancement, competitive advantage, continuing education, and global recognition of your skills and knowledge.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q139-Q144):

NEW QUESTION # 139
Patient is admitted in observation care on 12/2/20XX in the morning for acute asthma exacerbation. The ED physician requires the patient to stay overnight. Next day, 12/3/20XX the patient is discharged from observation care in the afternoon. Patient's total stay in observation was 16 hours.
What E/M categories and code ranges are appropriate to report?

A. Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99221-99223) and Subsequent Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99231-99233)
B. Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care (99221-99223) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239)
C. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-
99236) and Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care (99231-99233)
D. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-
99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239)

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. E/M Code Category Selection:
The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.
The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is "Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services", with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.
2. Code Range and Specific Codes:
Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.
For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.
Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to CPTguidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.
Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).

NEW QUESTION # 140
A patient arrives for a PEG placement. The patient requires tube feeds for nutrition but frequently pulls out the dobhoffs tube. An EGD was performed. Several attempts were made to place the PEG tube without success so the procedure was aborted. During the withdraw of the scope, a small hiatal hernia was noted in the stomach. The scope was removed the the patient transferred to recovery.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?

A. 43246, K94.29, Z93.1
B. :43830-52, Z43.1
C. 49450-53, K94.29, K44.9
D. 43246-53, K94.29, K44.9

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 141
A cardiologist uses the hospital's equipment for a cardiac stress test as he doesn't own equipment for the test.
He supervises the test and provides the interpretation and report of the test.
What CPT codes are reported?

A. 93016, 93017, 93018
B. 93015, 93016
C. 93016, 93018
D. 93015, 93018

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Procedure: Cardiac stress test performed using hospital's equipment with the cardiologist providing supervision, interpretation, and report.
* CPT Codes:
* 93016: This code is for supervision only without provision of the equipment.
* 93018: This code is for interpretation and report only.
* Code Selection Justification: Since the cardiologist does not own the equipment, codes 93016 and
93018 correctly represent the supervision, interpretation, and report of the test.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)

NEW QUESTION # 142
Which statement is FALSE in reporting a personal history ICD-10-CM code?

A. A personal history code can be reported as a first-listed code when the reason for encounter is for a screening.
B. A personal history code is reported when the patient's condition is no longer present or being treated.
C. A personal history code is acceptable on any medical record regardless of the reason of the visit.
D. A personal history code can be reported with follow-up codes.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In ICD-10-CM coding, personal history codes are used to indicate a patient's past medical conditions that no longer exist and are not receiving active treatment, but that may influence current care or require continued monitoring.
A: is correct because a personal history code can indeed be reported as a primary code if the encounter is specifically for screening due to a past condition.
B: is correct because personal history codes can be reported with follow-up codes to indicate that the patient is being monitored for recurrence of the past condition.
D: is correct because a personal history code is used when the patient no longer has or is being treated for that condition, but it remains relevant to the patient's health history.
C: is false because a personal history code is not used indiscriminately on any medical record; it is only appropriate when the past condition is relevant to the current encounter or impacts current patient care.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. A personal history code is acceptable on any medical record regardless of the reason of the visit.

NEW QUESTION # 143
A patient suffering from idiopathic dystonia is seen today and receives the following Botulinum injections:
three muscle injections in both upper extremities and seven injections in six paraspinal muscles.
How are these injections reported according to the CPT guidelines?

A. 64642-50, 64643-50, 64647
B. 64642, 64643, 64647
C. 64642 x 3, 64642 x 3, 64647 x 7
D. 64644, 64647 x 7

Answer: A

Explanation:
For the injections, CPT code 64642 is used for chemodenervation of one extremity; 64643 for each additional extremity, and 64647 for chemodenervation of muscles in the paraspinal region. The modifier -50 is added to 64642 and 64643 to indicate bilateral procedures. According to CPT guidelines, when multiple sites are treated, each site is coded separately, and appropriate modifiers are used.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Nervous System.

NEW QUESTION # 144
......

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